Notes

c) How far was Hitler’s determination to overturn the Treaty of Versailles to blame for war in 1939? Explain your answer.


On one hand, it can be argued that Hitler´s determination to overturn the Treaty of Versailles was heavily responsible for the war in 1939. He constantly went against the Treaty and in the late 1930s invaded other countries



However, it can be said that it was less responsible than it may seem. Although Hitler went against the Treaty several times, it was the League of Nations and other powerful countries like France and Britain that let him get away with these actions, following a weak policy of appeasement with little to no consequences for Germany. For example, Britain and France constantly let him break the treaty, like in the remilitarisation of the Rhineland and the unification of Germany and Austria, even though all of these were explicitly prohibited in the Treaty. The fact that there were no consequences for Hitlers actions against the Treaty allowed Hitler to be increasingly more confident, bold and violent in his actions against the Treaty. Eventually this lead to a war that could have been avoided if the league or Britain and France had stepped in sooner while Germany was still weak.


It can also be argued that

the treaty was unfair??

it was not Germany's determination to overturn the Treaty of Versailles that led to war, but rather (his need for more territory, and a thirst for war???)